I never said diplomatic immunity came from the 14th. But if the diplomat is immune from certain US laws, they are also excluded from certain US rights, liberties, and privileges, one of the exclusion is that their children, if borne on US soil, cannot be
AUTOMATIC citizen.
A person born in the United States to a foreign diplomatic officer accredited to the United States is not subject to the jurisdiction of United States law. Therefore, that person cannot be considered a U.S. citizen at birth under the 14th Amendment to the United States Constitution. This person...
www.uscis.gov
A person born in the United States to a foreign diplomatic officer accredited to the United States is not subject to the jurisdiction of United States law. Therefore, that person cannot be considered a U.S. citizen at birth under the 14th Amendment to the United States Constitution. This person may, however, be considered a permanent resident at birth and able to receive a Green Card through creation of record.
The exclusion of certain US rights, liberties, and privileges carried over to the child. The diplomat cannot buy a gun and neither can his children. Citizenship is no different.
That did not excluse anyone's right, that mean they either are or are not under US jurisdiction, again, the issue here is 14A does not exclusively say anyone born to a diplomat is excluded from being a US citizens, because they still allow them to if they had one parent who is not, which mean that did not say anything about who were excluded from 14A, rather who is not within the Jurisdiction of the United States.
If 14A does say that, then regardless of whether or not one of the parent is a diplomat, their children won't get Citizenship.
There is no way, from 1868 to today, can we list out exclusions from the 14th, hence the phrase 'subject to the jurisdiction'. We have two exclusions without being constitutionally and literally explicit:
1- Diplomats
2- Invading/occupying army
If we have to be explicit, the US Constitution would end up voluminous and cumbersome. The problem now, for the Left, is whether SCOTUS will allow illegal aliens to fall under the same exclusion as diplomats and foreign army without requiring a constitutional convention.
If I entered the US legally, it means immediately I am 'subject to the jurisdiction' of US laws, and if I have a child on US soil, my child would automatically be US citizen.
An illegal alien, by virtue of breaking the first US law encountered -- immigration -- he essentially refused to be such 'subject'. Therefore, his children should be granted automatic citizenship.
No need to change the constitution.
Only that none of what you said is listed in the constitution, the only thing that was said in the constitution is that you are going to be a citizens if you were born in the US and under US jurisdiction.
And if you want all those you said to be part of the law, you either need to pass a law to specifically say that, or alter the constitution.
In fact, I can go further and say, nowhere within our constitution have outlaw people who enter the country illegally. Thus, you can literally argue there were no crime committed when you enter the country illegally, if so, how are you going to define the consequence?
On the other hand, this is NOT how subject is interpreted, you enter a country, you are willingly submit to its jurisdiction, that happened automatically, that the same if you enter someone's home, whether or not you enter legally (as in they ask you to) or illegally (you break in) you are subject to their jurisdiction, I can't say "Oh, since I break in to your home, I refused to allow to be your subject and thus I can do whatever I wanted), If they ask you to leave, and you don't, then whether or not you enter that person's home legally or illegally, you are subject to his command, and if you don't they call the cops, the cops are NOT going to take your side.
That's what jurisdiction is, it does not transfer or deny whether one wants to.
I think you better consult your attorney wife for that error.
You want to talk to her instead?
Absolutely we enforce morality -- via LAWS.
Morality is about a set of belief, a mindset, and conviction. Law is about explicit behaviors.
If we say someone is a 'moral' person, we are saying that at the least, that person is obeying the laws. Maybe not even a driving violation. His sense of morality restrained his behaviors without the need for external compulsion. For all we know, he maybe a Satan-ist in the privacy of his home and have not been caught about animal sacrifices.
Laws are EXPRESSIONS of morality. Law enforcement is about compelling the people to ACT according to a set of morality. If we have a nude beach, it means we can be nude only when we are on the confines of that location. Nowhere else. That is affecting BEHAVIORS.
No, we don't enforce morality, otherwise there will not be p0rn site and you are not allow to drink or gamble or commit any sin, we don't live in religious law, which do enforce morality via law, we don't we preserve the society as a whole to follow the law, as I explained, law sometime is illogical or immoral, but we will have to abide by it regardless
No one in the United States enforce morality, maybe in Saudi Arabia or Iraq they do, we don't do them in the US. Which loast I check, we, including you, are opposing that idea.