Who Created Harappan / Indus Valley Civilisation? | How Did It End? | Samvaad With Devdutt Pattanaik

[Master Chief]

The Pakistan movement was built around the argument that Muslims and Hindus of India constituted distinct nations because of their different religious and cultural identities.

How is any of this incorrect, and how does any of this obviate the realities of our genomic origin?

 

[Master Chief]

Pakistanis claiming to be the inheritors of the Indus Valley Civilisation raises an interesting contradiction with the very foundations of the Two-Nation Theory and, with the ideological basis on which Pakistan was created.

No contradiction saar. Only what you have been taught at whatsapp university.

 

[Aghor Warrior]

How is any of this incorrect, and how does any of this obviate the realities of our genomic origin?

South Asian Muslims descend from local converts, so a large shared ancestral component remains. However, the practice of Inbreeding (Marrying Cousins) for roughly eight centuries has produced significant genetic differentiation. Continuous Inbreeding reduces gene flow with Hindu populations and increases the frequency of certain alleles and runs of homozygosity within Muslim groups.

As a result, average genetic distances between co-regional Hindu/Sikh populations are much larger than zero, and in some cases phenotype distributions (facial features, stature, skin tone gradients, etc.) are statistically distinguishable—for example between Punjabi Hindus/Sikhs and Punjabi Muslims (from pakistan), or between Bengali Hindus and Bangladeshi Muslims—even though substantial overlap still exists.


In short: common deep ancestry is real, but eight centuries of inbreeding in Muslims have produced detectable genetic and phenotypic divergence; cultural divergence is even clearer. The blanket assertion that the two groups are “the same people” therefore overstates both the genetic and the cultural continuity.

 

[Aghor Warrior]

I agree that Pakistani Muslims are culturally and genetically distinct from Indian Hindus and Sikhs. Centuries of Inbreeding in pakistani muslims, different historical trajectories, and divergent cultural practices have produced real differences between these groups.

However, the claim that the Indus Valley Civilization was created by Pakistani Muslims is false.

 

[Master Chief]

This is what I don't follow. Error by whom? Based on what? Do you have any proof Archemenids didn't call the others as Hindus? You can't which is why applying rigid modern geography to your so called "ancient Pakistan" fails.

The Achaememids did not substantially explore or document that which lay to the east. You're asking me to prove a negative and a void in their documentation. But there is consensus that different "kingdoms" existed to the east. What was later known as the Nandas to Alexander was most probably related to the kingdom of Magadha and certain "Mahajanapadas" before then.

The picture is evidently that of a highly fragmented region of the world, with inherent discontinuity of political dominion. Attempts to define them altogether as "India" remains a disingenuous act of "lumping", a concept that was true then as it was in 1947.

In fact, the linguistic evidence further supports there being a hard cultural boundary between Hindush and Magadha. Magadha had a script, a vedic Brahmi script, unsurprisingly. The people of Hindush had no script between the prior collapse of IVC and the arrival of the Persians, who of course brought cuneiform/aramaic etc with them.

You don't need indus script to talk about Hindush. But if you're so much into geographical seperation, you should have your own DNA study on IVC skeleton remains found in your country. Effectively rendering the whole Narasimhan et al. useless for "ancient" Pakistan and as a purely Gangetic civilizational relic. As soon as that comes up, you switch to genetic argument.

Also, for argument sake how is the word Hindu persian when the underlying word itself is from Sanskrit, Sindhu.

Already discussed. The Persians dropped the "S" and persianised the word. I never denied the original source as being Sanskrit. You're arguing against something I did not say.

Oh well, it again doesn't negate the history. Archemenids may have called them Hindus and Greeks may have used the term for them entirely and called it India. If you consider Greeks as erroneous, why not consider Archemenids as erroneous too? They wrongly called land of Bharata as Hindush. Why do you use Greek name India then? Why not Hindush?
Then again this process is completely normal linguistically. A geographical name can originate from one river or region and subsequently expand enormously in reference. The original referent doesn't permanently constrain what the word can mean.

The only mythology here is the misnomer called ancient Pakistan. Bharata is a tribe that won the battle of ten kings. That etymology expanded just like it did for Hindush to India. Nomenclature in geography always have expanded, or Pakistan wouldn't include Balochistan, do you not consider it Pakistan because the modern Pakistan didn't include that part of the border when Pakistan was created?

Very simply. And I have said this before on this thread but you seem to forget. Extrapolating an accurate and plausible and entirely logical descriptive term for the denizens of the Indus Valley (I.e. Hindush) to then incorporate the entirety of theoretical Bharat is exactly that - an EXTRAPOLATION. It can be overturned if evidence explains to the contrary and I have already provided that evidence from multiple perspectives, even the Vedic perspective itself!

Ancient Pakistan is not a myth. It is as real as Ancient Egypt. Egypt is a good example of how an abrahamic descendant population can easily claim its antecedent progenitor civilisation. Not one Egyptian alive today denies their Ancient Egyptian history. Their religion changed, tribes came and went, but ancient Egypt is just that - what existed before in coterminous Egypt. The same can be said of anywhere in the world.

India has created and nurtured its own state of confusion by seizing this name. Had you stuck with Bharat in 1947, none of us would be wasting our time on this matter today.

Only you're objecting to the nomenclature in 2026 or calling it as an error, not the Archemenids or Greeks, I think we can safely dismiss such objections.

It can't be dismissed because your nation continues to exert an erroneous and malevolent interpretation of events in your favour. You would perhaps like for it to be dismissed but citizens of Pakistan will continue to fight for ownership of their own legacy. This thread is a case in point.

That legacy further defines the nationhood for Pakistan that Delhi seeks to deny. Simply put, if you steal enough of our history, your case that "Pakistan is an artificial construct and a dismembering of the true nation that existed here" gains credence - what made you ever think in your wildest dreams we would let that happen?

 

[Master Chief]

South Asian Muslims descend from local converts, so a large shared ancestral component remains. However, the practice of Inbreeding (Marrying Cousins) for roughly eight centuries has produced significant genetic differentiation. Continuous Inbreeding reduces gene flow with Hindu populations and increases the frequency of certain alleles and runs of homozygosity within Muslim groups.

As a result, average genetic distances between co-regional Hindu/Sikh populations are much larger than zero, and in some cases phenotype distributions (facial features, stature, skin tone gradients, etc.) are statistically distinguishable—for example between Punjabi Hindus/Sikhs and Punjabi Muslims (from pakistan), or between Bengali Hindus and Bangladeshi Muslims—even though substantial overlap still exists.


In short: common deep ancestry is real, but eight centuries of inbreeding in Muslims have produced detectable genetic and phenotypic divergence; cultural divergence is even clearer. The blanket assertion that the two groups are “the same people” therefore overstates both the genetic and the cultural continuity.

Wtf even is this?

 

[Master Chief]

I agree that Pakistani Muslims are culturally and genetically distinct from Indian Hindus and Sikhs. Centuries of Inbreeding in pakistani muslims, different historical trajectories, and divergent cultural practices have produced real differences between these groups.

However, the claim that the Indus Valley Civilization was created by Pakistani Muslims is false.

What then explains the missing chromosome that you seem to be afflicted with?

 

[Ali_Baba]

Wtf even is this?

Just put Aghor Warrior on your ignore list - he is here to just troll...