Master Chief
Trusted Member
"India" and "Indic" are meaningless terms in the context you are deploying then under.Again you're insertion Islam unnecessarily. Fine then, it's straight forward Semitic culture, just like Judaism is Semitic and by the people of Levant, Christianity by Jesus a Jewish man from the tribe of Judah. Are you going say oh these cultures are not native to Levant or Arabean peninsula. But brought by Zagros people? And arguing to death for Zagros as soneone who brought those "foreign cultures".
Similarly Vedism-Hinduism/Buddhism/Sikhism/Jainism are native to India they are called Indic cultures afterall. Not AASI, Steppe Aryan R1a admixed IVC AASI Zagros culture which it is afterall. Like Judaism is x, y, z yada yada yada DNA admixed peoples culture.
Or take a different contrast, say a Hindu of Russian origin or a Hindu of African origin, Balinese Hindu, a Khmer Buddhist. Do they not know their culture is Indic? They do. You're somehow irked by the idea that an Indian calls his religion native and you straight dive into DNA and genetics to prove its "not native". I say Nice try.
What bearing does the India described by Herodotus and the Persians have on the modern nation state of India?
None whatsoever. They knew of the Indus Valley and the hordes of Nanda that lay beyond.
Your conjecture is based on an accident of nomenclature.
In reality, Sikhism arose in ancient Pakistan. It is "Indic" as per Herodotus' definition of India, not Nehru's.
I have explained to you that Vedic Hinduism is a syncretism between genuinely foreign influences (Eurasian Steppe), IVC influences (Pakistan) and local (true "Indian") influences, therefore to describe this as purely "Indian" is misleading from a historical perspective.
I'll give you buddhism and jainism for now, as I'm not knowledgeable on either of their antecedent histories.



