Who Created Harappan / Indus Valley Civilisation? | How Did It End? | Samvaad With Devdutt Pattanaik

@Master Chief @peagle how did you guys gain such extensive knowledge of the ancient subcontinent ? Is it some books you read ?

I read a biography of Alexander by Philip Freeman which included his campaigns in present day Iran, Afghanistan and Pakistan, so I recognize some of the terms you used but don't know this stuff in depth.
In truth, I know nowhere near what I need to know. The journey continues.

One thing though - a partial biology/health sciences background did help in understanding the genetics aspect. The relevant papers made sense because of this.

As I said, I have a long way to go. My esteemed associate @peagle , who does indulge us with his extensive knowledge when he is available and not on sabbatical leave from the forum, can surely advise us both on the best historical texts.
 
@Master Chief @peagle how did you guys gain such extensive knowledge of the ancient subcontinent ? Is it some books you read ?

I read a biography of Alexander by Philip Freeman which included his campaigns in present day Iran, Afghanistan and Pakistan, so I recognize some of the terms you used but don't know this stuff in depth.

Can I just start by saying, thank you.
I appreciate the comment. But Master sahib is far more knowledgeable then me, it's without a doubt. I just appear knowledgeable lol, it's a trick.
I can teach you but i'll have to charge :ROFLMAO:

From my end, it really is about the approach rather then raw knowledge. In my view facts are dime a dozen. Everyone has facts, time, effort and research keeps changing facts. Then which facts do you follow or believe in? Dealing with facts is like mud wrestling.

I establish the principle of any topic, what does the logic say, and is the reasonable argument. Is that argument applied fairly across the world or is Pakistan being singled out (on any topic but since Pakistan is at discussion here).
You establish your entire statement and argument based on that framework, paradoxically facts are secondary to the argument on any given topic.

Logic and reason isn't dictated by an author, most, i would say over 90% of people get into quotation wrestling, mention authors and books and articles. In my view it means for not much. It's the argument, the fairness of the principle involved is the single most primary factor on any given topic.
Facts, books, authors, quotations, come far down the list. It goes against the natural inclination, but in fact, it's factually true.

If those things were so important then why dish out tens of thousand of PhDs on every topic. They all look at the same topic with broadly the same set of facts but arrive at wildly different conclusions.
Why? Because it's the argument which matters, it's the principle which matters. Not facts, they merely exist to support the argument but are not central to the argument. The argument itself is the core.

You can complete 100 PhDs in different fields of mathematics, create new fields of your own. But you still have to justify why 2+2=5, if that is your claim. Unless it's a technical subject, everything is easily understood by anyone and the core principles of any given topic can be questioned even by a child.


I'll stop here, i tried to condense my approach, otherwise it would have become too long, i hope my explanation came across with some clarity.



I'll add one more thing, read things in a eclectic manner, books, articles, anything. I used to read books by chapters, borrow or buy a book, just for a single chapter.
I have read many books purely by index lol, if i get hold of a autobiography of Kessinger, which i have, why do i care how he became a professor and how he was appointed to government? Someone might, i don't. I want to know what he reveals about what matters to me. Go to the index, find the topic and read purely on that and continue reading till the context and nuance associated with that mention has dissipated. It's through that book i learnt an Indian prime minister in the 70s i think, was on CIA payroll.

I'll give you another example of self exploration. Once you adopt an approach as i have described above, the issues in your question become second habit.

All my life i heard about the so-called genocide in East Pakistan. I know my nation, there is no way in hell would my people "willfully" kill other people, it's not in our blood.
Learn to recognise the words.

So few years ago, i looked at the census data of both East Pakistan and West Pakistan, including Bangladesh after their independence. I tracked the decadal growth from 1951 to 1991. If 3 million people had been killed, there should be a strong blimp in the census results of 1961 to the 1974 census in Bangladesh.

During that period 1 million people had died in a 1970 cyclone and another 1 Million plus in a famine few years after their independence due to mismanagement, but before the census. Plus Mujib's dictatorial rule had resulted in deaths of tens of thousands, there are various figures. Furthermore, the alleged 10 million refugees. Then you also have the West Pakistanis who left.
There is nothing, no blip, no noticeable difference in the census figures. None.
Where are the missing people? They still exist according to the census figures.
Census counts everyone and only those inside the country.

I had read various articles and some books, but they all operate on the lines of claims, allegations and interviews. I have never come across any research which looks at the census data. You'd think that should be obvious. it's all about the approach.

Regarding the ten million refugees.
These are the facts. The United Nations reported figures were all indian figures accepted by the United Nations in blind faith. India conducted organised press tours, so any reporting was highly organised and artificial in nature behind the scene.

The UNHCR wasn't given free access to any of the refugee camps, no monitoring mechanism was allowed to be set up. The head of the UNHCR at the time was the Agha Khan He wanted to visit various refugees camps and he was refused permission, except for highly organised tours by India.

The war ended in mid December, power transfer to a Bangladeshi leadership did not take place till early January, if i remember correctly. So there was no government in those few weeks after the war needed.

The UNHCR wrote a letter to India end of January or early February regarding the organised return of those so-called 10 million refugees. India wrote back, they have all returned lol

If you believe 10 million refugees can return within a month, then yes there were ten million refugees.
So don't go by facts, learn to fine tune your arguments.

It was incumbent on our lot to conduct proper research, but our experts are stupid beyond belief. I honestly cannot name a single person i respect.
Sorry it ended up being far longer then i planned, and still I've not said what i truly wanted.
I appreciate your generosity.
 
In truth, I know nowhere near what I need to know. The journey continues.

One thing though - a partial biology/health sciences background did help in understanding the genetics aspect. The relevant papers made sense because of this.

As I said, I have a long way to go. My esteemed associate @peagle , who does indulge us with his extensive knowledge when he is available and not on sabbatical leave from the forum, can surely advise us both on the best historical texts.

Your associate just wrote another one of his on the nose write ups lol, If i had read your post first i might have gone a little easier but too late :ROFLMAO:
 
You call it "natural progression" all you like. I call it an error. I have explained objectively why this extrapolation is erroneous. You are entitled to your opinion otherwise.

"India" by your definition was a continent, of discontiguous, disparate, and assorted cultural groups, not unified except by force of imperial arms.
Scholarly consensus don't support you though. Your thoughts and opinions may find support among your peers. Which is fine for us.
It does follow though. Of course it does. Europe was fragmented and was only ever forced together politically by force of imperial arms. You tell me...when the Roman Empire or the 3rd Reich dissolved, did one of the liberated nations suddenly demand that all other nations merge with it and be governed from its capital? Should all of Europe be British owned or French owned just because they happen to be one religion or one skin colour? What utter bollocks you persist with.
France retaining the name “Europe” would obviously not entitle it to rule Europe but Europe would remain Europe after Rome collapsed. Calling Magadha and Gandhara parts of ancient India likewise doesn't imply that either had a political right to rule the other.
What's your point? That independent neighbouring principalities established their own identity and fought with one another? That's precisely what I am trying to tell you....isn't it?
Of course. And Athens and Sparta having separate identities and fighting each other didn't make either non-Greek. Separate political identities do not demonstrate separate civilisational/geographical identities.
Whether Prakrit or Sanskrit, you have ZERO evidence that the Indic script was anything like it. Persian cuneiform and aramaic were certainly not like it! Next..
Haha, you introduced 'Vedic Brahmi' whatever that means as evidence for a hard cultural boundary. I don't need to prove two scripts were alike, you need to demonstrate that your alleged sixth century BCE Magadhan 'Vedic Brahmi' existed and that its difference from writing in west establishes the cultural boundary you claimed.
Yes I can. Why not? If the descriptor was used for a certain region (Hindush) and there is no evidence it was used for the region that lay to the east, then what logical recourse is stopping me from merely restating those established realities? Did the Achaemenids declare that Hindush was only partly under their control? Did they state they needed to expand further eastwards to complete their occupation and satrapisation of Hindush? If so, please share your evidence.
Achaemenid imperial boundaries establish the scope of Achaemenid Hindus, not the permanently permissible meaning of every descendant of that word for the next 2,500 years.
Mate you celebrate what you like. I will call it out for the delusion that it is though. Let the discerning readership decide for themselves.
I have said this before Pakistan is free to celebrate it's culture that doesn't give either Pakistan or India exclusive ownership of civilisations and cultural traditions that crossed today's borders. Go ahead...
OK whatever works for you folks. Please be reminded that neither Nehru nor Gandhi wanted Pakistan to be created and both favoured the birth of a single independent nation state in 1947. Even Golwalkar was the same in this regard. Not one of these individuals wanted a "compromise". Are you suggesting your founders were forced to acquiesce to a demand imposed upon you? Why is that even relevant to this conversation, which I will remind you, was about the NAMING of "India"?
That's relevant only because you introduced the claim that India 'seized' the name in 1947. Congress preferring a united India doesn't mean that the successor state stole its name.
I made my position clear, that this name was stolen, misappropriated, usurped. Please refute that position instead of providing your opinions on WHY either Pakistan or India were born as nation states in 1947 (can of course discuss that but in an appropriate thread).
Then this is the proposition you actually need to prove. Stolen from whom?
India was already the internationally established name of British India before Pakistan existed. British India was partitioned in 1947. One successor became Pakistan the other continued as India. You can argue that Bharat would have been a better name, but preference isn't evidence of theft.

You just seem salty that India chose to retain the name India in 1947, because you recognise the enormous historical and civilisational weight that comes with it. That's really what this objection is about not that the name lacks historical pedigree, but that you resent the modern Republic of India inheriting it. Well, boo fucking hoo. India retained the name, the world recognises it, and no amount of retrospective outrage in 2026 is going to change that.
 
"India" by your definition was a continent, of discontiguous, disparate, and assorted cultural groups, not unified except by force of imperial arms.

The same can be argued for Pakistan with the Balochs and Pathans being more Iranian than Indian
 
Scholarly consensus don't support you though. Your thoughts and opinions may find support among your peers. Which is fine for us.
What does "scholarly consensus" tell us about the Achaemenid satrapy called Hindush? That it did not extend into eastern gangetic realms.

What does "scholarly consensus" tell us about the land mass called "India" as a geographical entity, in terms of its unified status (whether a single polity or united city states)?

AI response explicitly from scholarly works: "India became a single unified nation-state under a single sovereign government when the Republic of India was established with its constitution in 1950, following independence from Britain in 1947.

Before this modern era, the Indian subcontinent was never a single unified nation-state, though certain large empires brought vast regions under one imperial ruler.Early Imperial UnificationThe Mauryan Empire (c. 300–185 BCE): Emperor Ashoka united a large majority of the northern and central subcontinent under one rule, though parts of the far south remained independent.The Mughal Empire (16th–17th century): Under rulers like Akbar and Aurangzeb, the Mughals controlled most of northern and central India, but they never fully conquered the far south or the northeast."

Did we not already agree that the land mass of "India" (the erroneous and oversimplified extrapolation of the original Achaemenid definition) was only ever unified by Mauryans, Mughals, and Brits? Similarly, Europe has been forcibly unified at several points in history. The similarities are uncanny in fact. India is as much a country as Europe is. Luckily for you, keeping everybody deliberately stupid in your country helps preserve the illusion.

France retaining the name “Europe” would obviously not entitle it to rule Europe but Europe would remain Europe after Rome collapsed. Calling Magadha and Gandhara parts of ancient India likewise doesn't imply that either had a political right to rule the other.

The names are irrelevant to my specific analogy. Let's use a real analogue, the Eternal Reich, or the "Greater Germanic Reich" as hitler explicitly wanted occupied Europe to be called. Did that work out well for all parties concerned, even though they had religious and significant cultural and racial congruence? Indeed, Europe was and is significantly MORE homogenous than India.

Athens and Sparta having separate identities and fighting each other didn't make either non-Greek. Separate political identities do not demonstrate separate civilisational/geographical identities.

I keep reminding you - we are referring to the naming of South Asian political entities. Did locals establish the name "India" or was it an exonym?
Who gave the Greeks their name "Hellas"? In case you haven't figured it out, it was the Hellenes themselves! Spartans and Athenians BOTH arose directly from hellenic tribes and shared identical genomic ancestry (afaik).

With that in mind, do remind us if gangetics were genetically the same as indus inhabitants (BEFORE the collapse of the IVC, the flight of Harappans eastward, and the arrival of Steppelanders...events that homogenised north Indian and ancient Pakistani profiles to a degree).

Essentially, you're comparing an alliance of City States that decided for themselves they were all GREEK and had the genetic evidence to support that claim starting from their progenitor status.... with a geographical lumping together of rival City States who, at best, could be called Bharat if left to their own devices to come up with a name, who moreover do not have the cultural, religious, and genetic basis upon which to "merge" with one another (and consequently were not able to, EXCEPT BY FORCE FROM A THIRD PARTY - Maurya, Aurangzeb, Queen Victoria).

Haha, you introduced 'Vedic Brahmi' whatever that means as evidence for a hard cultural boundary. I don't need to prove two scripts were alike, you need to demonstrate that your alleged sixth century BCE Magadhan 'Vedic Brahmi' existed and that its difference from writing in west establishes the cultural boundary you claimed.

Who said it was anything other than a temporal descriptor? You're right that "vedic" is a meaningless qualifier for "brahmi" in a linguistic sense, but brahmi script arose in the era after the vedics had arrived from the Eurasian Steppeland, which is all that was meant by this qualifier in the above context, distinguishing it temporally from indus script, which was clearly "pre-vedic".

I don't need to prove a negative. You prove to me there was a native script in the Indus Valley before the Mauryan empire controlled it (which was the first point of imperial contiguity between the old Achaemenid satrapies, then ruled by Seleucids after the Achaemenids fell) and the regions to the east that was ANYTHING SIMILAR to Brahmi. It may interest you to know that Brahmi script was read left to right, whereas IVC script was read right to left - they're already substantially different. Being a fan of Ashoka's magnanimous learnings, I expected you of all people to know this much. The point being made is that Magadhan script was Brahmi, which has no conceivable roots in IVC script.

Then this is the proposition you actually need to prove. Stolen from whom?
India was already the internationally established name of British India before Pakistan existed. British India was partitioned in 1947. One successor became Pakistan the other continued as India. You can argue that Bharat would have been a better name, but preference isn't evidence of theft.

You just seem salty that India chose to retain the name India in 1947, because you recognise the enormous historical and civilisational weight that comes with it. That's really what this objection is about not that the name lacks historical pedigree, but that you resent the modern Republic of India inheriting it. Well, boo fucking hoo. India retained the name, the world recognises it, and no amount of retrospective outrage in 2026 is going to change that.

Stolen from whom?? Were you paying attention to the thread and our discussion...stolen from Pakistan of course!

And yes, it is a theft of intellectual property that leads to genuine economic harm. Once definitions are established accurately, everything associated with coterminous Pakistan historically is NOT associated with the Secular Republic of India, BY DEFINITION. The problem is obvious. Call it "saltiness" if that helps you cope but that top tier whinging won't stop the truth from being written. I understand you fear this because of all the stolen property your Secular Republic stands to lose as a result!

India was a name given by foreigners to coterminous Pakistan, then erroneously extrapolated to incorporate eastern territories. Those eastern territories than had the nerve to retroactively "claim" Pakistan and its heritage!

It is a case of civilisational PARASITISM and we shall treat it aggressively.
 
Achaemenid imperial boundaries establish the scope of Achaemenid Hindus, not the permanently permissible meaning of every descendant of that word for the next 2,500 years.
Missed this one...

Look we don't care what you call your primordial milieu of a nation state as long as it doesn't impinge on our rightful legacy and heritage. It's that simple.

Greece fought for decades against FYROM for EXACTLY THIS REASON. There is precedence over the importance of this matter. I'm not just fahrting in a wind tunnel for laughs here.

Go with Bharat. Or Gangadesh as has been suggested. How about Marathastan (please credit me appropriately if you go with this one)?
 

Ep 13: This Is What Ancient Indian Cities Looked Like​




>> Another Indian trying to steal Pakistan's history and legacy of the Indus Valley Civilization and rebrand it as their own.
 

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