Vikramaditya1
Trusted Member
Yeah us.I'm talking about the naming of "India".
Says you. The people who used that term didn't limit it, also Gandhara still has Indus flowing that in itself defeats your argument. Why not call em India. And again, why dwell so much on the Sanskrit nomenclature when the name is itself ultimately derived from Sanskrit? If I'm named Varuna, the fact that someone pronounces or adapts my name differently doesn't somehow mean I'm no longer the Varuna. If it's convenient I adopt that name too.And yes it is true, as far as we know, that the Persians and their Greek subjects derived the nomenclature from the Sanskrit for a specific river but guess what? It ONLY applies to that river, even in your own sacred texts. These texts do not refer to an actual continuous political entity but rather a hopeful vision of what Bharat should be. Clearly, apart from briefly under Ashoka, these disparate regions were never unified in reality. Even if they were, why would you accept calling it India, after only ONE of the rivers mentioned in your script?
It's in the Indian constitution itself, India that is Bharat.Tell me, what do ancient Sanskrit texts refer to the WHOLE subcontinent as, or even coterminous Bharat? Is it "India" or is it something else??
So what if we adopted that exonym. It's afterall our name. It has been for thousands of years."INDIA" is beyond all doubt an exonym, bequeathed unto the region of the Indus specifically by foreigners who used the word for ONE of the rivers identified in your scriptures.


