Who Created Harappan / Indus Valley Civilisation? | How Did It End? | Samvaad With Devdutt Pattanaik

[Neojinnah]

No one in Italy disowns Roman Empire. Latin Alphabet and Christianity is from Roman Era. No one in Germany disputes their descendants were the Germanic tribes. the definition of what is Germanic has evolved over time. It is German.

Both Italy and Germany are basically originally multiethnic countries where large swathes of people are not descended from Germanic tribes or ancient Romans and were assimilated into that identity very recently, so you're wrong. It's this kind of elementary level understanding of the world which leads to Indians making ridiculous assertions.

The language, culture is all there.

Not true. India is a typical post colonial country born out of foreign British rule, modernity, globalization, etc. The culture is a product of this and the official language is English because the inhabitants dont have a common language. But the elite of India are religious fanatics and chauvinists in denial, so they have this delusion that they're exactly the same as people from thousands of years ago.

 

[nahtanbob]

Both Italy and Germany are basically originally multiethnic countries where large swathes of people are not descended from Germanic tribes or ancient Romans and were assimilated into that identity very recently, so you're wrong. It's this kind of elementary level understanding of the world which leads to Indians making ridiculous assertions.

What other ethnicity lives in Italy and Germany proper ?

Not true. India is a typical post colonial country born out of foreign British rule. The culture is a product of this and the official language is English because the inhabitants dont have a common language. But the elite of India are religious fanatics and chauvinists in denial, so they have this delusion that they're exactly the same as people from thousands of years ago.

I have told you the definition keeps changing

you have not answered which people called Indika gets written in 3rd century BC
Or why half a dozen European countries would start East India Companies in the 16th century ?

 

[Neojinnah]

What other ethnicity lives in Italy and Germany proper ?

Albanians, Slavs, and Germanic people in Italy. Poles and Slavs in Germany.
It's incredible how as an Indian you make so many confident assertons about the world and yet demand to be spoonfed what should be basic information. Just one among the myriad of ways engaging with ignorant and obnoxious Hindu fanatics becomes a tiresome chore.

You have not answered which people called Indika gets written in 3rd century BC
Or why half a dozen European countries would start East India Companies in the 16th century ?

Why does it matter? Indika comes from the Sanskrit word Sindhu. There are hundreds of millions of Dravidian Hindus in India today with ancestors who spoke a completely different language to Sanskrit. So why are you kanging on Indika and thinking it will prove your point?

 

[Master Chief]

What other ethnicity lives in Italy and Germany proper ?


I have told you the definition keeps changing

you have not answered which people called Indika gets written in 3rd century BC
Or why half a dozen European countries would start East India Companies in the 16th century ?

You're recycling the same old argument. Not sure why Germania is cited as an example of disparate cultures forming a single polity, as the features of this supposed analogue are quite different from what we see in South Asia.

Germania was the Latin name for Deutschland. Deutschland was the endonym for the Rhineland germanic peoples who resisted Roman rule together (no foreign power imposed the name upon them). The Roman advance politically unified these once warring peoples. Beyond that, they shared languages, DNA, and cultures. This is already substantially different to the South Asian experience. You can take any period in history you like, IVC, Alexander, Maurya, Mughals, British - the traits shared between germanic peoples (DNA, linguistics, culture, religion, even endonymy) did not (to varying degrees) align for South Asian peoples.

Even having said all that, Germanic peoples NEVER actually unified entirely. Hitler didn't even manage it. Anglo-Saxons are a germanic people and they spread far and wide, so how on earth is it even possible for them to unify into a single nation state?

Here's what "India" looked like when white colonisers decided to take over. You're sitting here telling me this was some "unified" front against "non-natives"? (See below)

You can go further back.

Did the Nandas suggest a united defence with Porus against Alexander's advance, or were the Nandas and Porus actually rivals, so much so that Porus was left to his fate despite being supposedly "native barhadari"?

At NO SIGNIFICANT POINT in known history (Harappan era, post-Harappan era, Mauryan era, Mughal era, British colonial era..) can the claim be justifiably and evidently made that the tribes of the Indus and the tribes of the Ganga (+southies) were EVER a united political entity. On the contrary, they rivalled each other (as did MANY other groups within south Asia) and even REPEATEDLY AND CONSISTENTLY plotted each other's downfall with help from Europeans!

Shall we discuss the Marathas and their "unified defence of mother India" next?? Tipu might want to join the chat.