peagle
Trusted Member
Technically no, since there was no country by that name. Of course you probably mean present-day Iran.
Yes it so. Even "Greece" did not exist at that time. Only as a pan-ethnicity but no country as Greece was recorded at that time.
When you start getting technical, india wasn't colonised either. It did not exist. The British literally named and created india.
Most of the countries in the world did not have their names so they were not colonised either i suppose.
Let's not create confusion, when people refer to being colonised they're not referring to the present day name, it's the land and the people.
The point made by watander sahib was extremely relevant and historically accurate.



